Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect v1.0

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Exam contains 118 questions

Universal Containers has a highly customized Salesforce org, with many different pieces of configuration and code.
Which configuration item should be covered by executable tests?

  • A. Active Process Builders
  • B. Validation Rules
  • C. Workflow Rules
  • D. Case Assignment Rites


Answer : A

The CTO at Universal Containers decided to implement the Scrum framework for its agile teams, and communicated a set of Serum principles to the company.
Which describes a Scrum principle?

  • A. Respect other teams by not doing their work (a developer should not test the software).
  • B. Create transparency by being honest and clear about timing, planning, and obstacles.
  • C. Embrace change by working on a different scope every day.
  • D. Deliver working software, so if a software component is working, avoid changing it.


Answer : B

Universal Containers has discovered a Sev0 defect in production. Tens of thousands of records will be created with incorrect data in minutes, producing significant brand damage as a consequence. The Salesforce administrator has suggested that the defective text field be replaced with a new picklist field directly in production. The page layout will be modified so that the text-field is removed and the new picklist field added.
What should the Salesforce architect advise?

  • A. Explain that only developers are certified to make changes directly in production.
  • B. Deny the suggestion and explain to everyone that the risk is too high and the next release window is on the weekend.
  • C. Call the security team and begin organizing a penetration test.
  • D. Pair with the administrator, and review each change as it happens


Answer : D

Which two options should be considered when making production changes in a highly regulated and audited environment? (Choose two.)

  • A. All changes including hotfixes should be reviewed against security principles.
  • B. After deployment, the development team should test and verity functionality in production.
  • C. Any production change should have explicit stakeholder approval.
  • D. No manual steps should be carried out.


Answer : AC

Which two actions will contribute to an improvement of code security? (Choose two.)

  • A. Use two developers to review and fix current code vulnerabilities.
  • B. Implement a pull request and secure code review.
  • C. Hire a company specialized in secure code review the current code.
  • D. Integrate a static code security analysis tool in the CI/CD process.


Answer : BD

Universal Containers (UC) has multiple development teams that work on separate streams of work, with different timelines. Each stream has different releases of code and config, and the delivery dates differ between them.
What is a suitable branching policy to recommend?

  • A. GitHub flow
  • B. Trunk-based development
  • C. Scratch-org-based development
  • D. Leaf-based development


Answer : A

Universal Containers (UC) is embarking on a large program of work, with different projects and different vendors. UC created a center of excellence (COE) that is struggling with scope creep between the different projects.
What role should the architect suggest be added to the COE?

  • A. Release managers
  • B. Scrum master
  • C. Change managers
  • D. Product owner


Answer : B

Cloud Kicks is switching to Salesforce from a different CRM. They have existing datasets for all standard Salesforce objects.
In which optimized order should the architect recommend these objects be loaded?

  • A. Accounts, Contacts, Leads, Products, Opportunities, Opportunity Line Items
  • B. Accounts, Contacts, Opportunities, Products, Opportunity Line Items, Leads
  • C. Leads, Contacts, Accounts, Opportunities, Products, Opportunity Line Items
  • D. Leads, Accounts, Contacts, Products, Opportunities, Opportunity Line Items


Answer : B

Universal Containers wants to introduce data volume testing to resolve ongoing performance defects earlier in the lifecycle. Regulations prohibit the use of production data in non-production environments.
Which two options can the architect recommend? (Choose two.)

  • A. Request a partial Sandbox copy after the next Salesforce release.
  • B. Generate mock data that mimics production data shape and volume.
  • C. Use Query Analyzer in production.
  • D. Perform data masking on full sandbox after a refresh.


Answer : BD

What are three advantages of using the SFDX? (Choose three.)

  • A. Can quickly deploy metadata using Execute Anonymous.
  • B. Can create scratch orgs.
  • C. Can install application metadata from a central repository.
  • D. Can store code on a local machine, or a version control system.
  • E. Can use native Deployment Rollback Too to quickly revert to prior state.


Answer : BCD

There are many types of quality assurance techniques that can help minimize defects in software projects.
Which two techniques should an architect recommend, for Universal Containers to incorporate into its overall CI/CD pipeline? (Choose two.)

  • A. Automated browser testing
  • B. Stress testing
  • C. Business verification testing
  • D. Static code quality analysis


Answer : AD

Universal Containers’s architect is documenting the application lifecycle management (ALM) process to communicate it to the development teams from different implementation partners.
Which three steps apply to any Salesforce development project? (Choose three.)

  • A. Test
  • B. Develop
  • C. Continuous Integration
  • D. Build Release
  • E. Change Sets


Answer : ABD

A team has completed a sprint and intends to deploy these changes after business approval, but they will immediately begin the next sprint.
What strategy should an architect recommend?

  • A. Using Git, create a release branch from the develop branch. All fixes must be made in the release branch. After deployment, merge release with develop.
  • B. The first task of the new sprint must be the deployment approval. After that, the other tasks of the sprint can be performed in the environments and Git.
  • C. Commit upcoming changes to the features branch without merging into the develop branch. Deploy from the develop branch and then merge new sprit features into the develop branch.
  • D. Migrate the current code to the UAT sandbox. Begin new sprint development in the Dev sandbox. Make fixes in the UAT environment and deploy UAT for production after business approval.


Answer : A

Universal Containers (UC) have developed a managed package targeted for AppExchange. The product includes some Apex code to customize and create layouts. UC is in the testing phase of the package, so it’s not certified yet. During testing on the target org, the Apex code for the layouts fails.
Why are the Apex classes not able to access the metadata of the target org during testing?

  • A. Apex Settings to allow the access to metadata is not switched on.
  • B. UC needs to get the managed package certified by the Salesforce security review.
  • C. The solution is flawed. UC should utilize the Tooling API from a web service call to modify the layouts.
  • D. UC needs to turn on Apex Settings within the custom metadata type.


Answer : A

A developer was trying to retrieve the metadata from an org and ran the sfdx force:source:retrieve command. When the command was run, the developer received the error message: “This command is required to run from within an SFDX project.”
What can be two possible reasons that caused this problem? (Choose two.)

  • A. The developer hadn’t run the sfdx force:project:create command.
  • B. The developer created the project within VSCode, but ran the command in a separate terminal.
  • C. The developer created the project, but ran the command outside of the project directory.
  • D. The developer forgot to add the -n option with a project name as a command line argument.


Answer : AC

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Exam contains 118 questions

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